GTTM: ask your wife -
a) why the self-proclaimed 'faithful slave' opposes & contradicts Jesus who said that the great tribulation of Matthew 24:21 would never occur again. (What exactly did he mean by "never"?)
b) The great tribulation of Revelation 7:14 is contextually referring to the same one mentioned earlier at Revelation 2:22, so why does the hierarchy cross-reference Rev. 7:14 with Matt. 24:21, instead of with Rev. 2:22? (Two different G.T.'s are being discussed)
How can the org's 'tribulation' kick off with Babylon the Great being destroyed if the judgment starts first with the house of God? (1 Peter 4:17)